Re: Bergsonism vs. PostHegelianism

Dear Inna,

I guess the word "logic" would submit tot he same illogic? A=notA? Clarely 
there are process at work in dreams (or semiosis, or habituses) that have a 
"logic" that applies to them? These "logics" are rightly to be mapped, in 
all their illogicality, like a map of a Kafka town or castle? What sort of 
"logic" is used to make "logic" admit to its "nonlogic"? Freud: "Either/or 
is never expressed in a dream image or sequence - they are both inserted 
into the text of the dream as though they were equally valid ... ideas that 
are contraries are by preference expressed in dreams by the same 
sign."[sic]The question of Klamm?

:) Chris

>well semiotic machines are logical - peirce coined logic as  "semeiotics"
>stressing that it IS logic -but not Aristotelean, that is logic of
>non-contradiction. Perceian logic is based on triadic relatiobship - as
>Bosteels said referring to Guattari: "a differnt logic of social practice,
>an intensive and affective logic of the included middle" (in Kaufman
>book). While on the subject, a brillian article appeard three-four years
>ago entitled "Virtual logic" (in Systems theory journal) - where it was
>pretty much proven that a pipe is not a pipe.... or vice versa A=notA.
>inna

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