yes, and Deleuze was referring to this different kind of logic which he
said comes out "in delire".
inna
didn't know that Freud said that either/or does not apply to dreams, good
to know.
On Fri, 7 Apr 2000, Chris McMahon wrote:
> Dear Inna,
>
> I guess the word "logic" would submit tot he same illogic? A=notA? Clarely
> there are process at work in dreams (or semiosis, or habituses) that have a
> "logic" that applies to them? These "logics" are rightly to be mapped, in
> all their illogicality, like a map of a Kafka town or castle? What sort of
> "logic" is used to make "logic" admit to its "nonlogic"? Freud: "Either/or
> is never expressed in a dream image or sequence - they are both inserted
> into the text of the dream as though they were equally valid ... ideas that
> are contraries are by preference expressed in dreams by the same
> sign."[sic]The question of Klamm?
>
> :) Chris
>
> >well semiotic machines are logical - peirce coined logic as "semeiotics"
> >stressing that it IS logic -but not Aristotelean, that is logic of
> >non-contradiction. Perceian logic is based on triadic relatiobship - as
> >Bosteels said referring to Guattari: "a differnt logic of social practice,
> >an intensive and affective logic of the included middle" (in Kaufman
> >book). While on the subject, a brillian article appeard three-four years
> >ago entitled "Virtual logic" (in Systems theory journal) - where it was
> >pretty much proven that a pipe is not a pipe.... or vice versa A=notA.
> >inna
>
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